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Test Name : Test 5 (Polity & Governance)

Full Marks: 200

Time Duration: 120 minutes

Time Remaining: 00m 00s

Total Questions: 100

(1) In which of the following Acts, the provision was made for the establishment of Supreme Court at Calcutta?

(A) Regulating Act, 1773
(B) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
(C) Charter Act, 1813
(D) Chart Act, 1833

(2) In Indian political system which one is supreme?

(A) The Supreme Court
(B) The Constitution
(C) The Parliament
(D) Religion

(3) The concept of ‘Judicial Review’ in India has been adopted from the Constitution of –

(A) U.K.
(B) U.S.A.
(C) U.S.S.R.
(D) Australia

(4) The system of Judicial Review exists in –

(A) India only
(B) U.S.A. only
(C) India and U.S.A.
(D) U.K. only

(5) Which of the following characteristics is common between the Federal system of India and America?

(A) A Single Citizenship
(B) Three list in the Constitution
(C) Dual Judicial System
(D) A Federal Supreme Court for Interpretation of the Constitution

(6) The idea of Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from –

(A) U.S.A.
(B) Switzerland
(C) Australia
(D) U.S.S.R.

(7) Match List-I with List-II and identify correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Constitutional Provision) — List-II (Source)
a) Fundamental Rights — i. British Constitution
b) Directive Principles of State policy — ii. Canadian Constitution
c) Cabinet Government — iii. Irish Constitution
d( Union-State Relations — iv. U.S. Bill of Rights

(A) iv iii ii i
(B) iv ii iii i
(C) iv i iii ii
(D) iv iii i ii

(8) Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India has become the longest one. Reason (R) : The Chapter on Fundamental Rights has been borrowed from the model of American Constitution.

(A) hoose the correct answer using the code given below code:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(9) The concept of Fundamental Rights, as incorporated in the Indian Constitution has been adopted from?

(A) France
(B) Britain
(C) United States of America
(D) Russia

(10) The tradition of written Constitution began from which of the following countries?

(A) Japan
(B) India
(C) Britain
(D) America

(11) Consider the following statements –
I. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
II. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all.
III. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) I and II
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I, II and III

(12) Which one of the given subjects is not correctly matched with their list?
(Subject) — (List)

(A) Forest — Concurrent
(B) Stock Exchange — Concurrent
(C) Post Office Saving Bank — Union
(D) Public Health — State

(13) Match the following –
List-I — List-II

(A) Union List — I. Police and Public Order
(B) State List — II. Space Research
(C) Concurrent List — III. Census
(D) Residuary Subject — IV. Population Control and Family Planning

(14) Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?
I. Directive Principles of State Policy
II. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
III. Fifth Schedule
IV. Sixth Schedule
V. Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) Only I and II
(B) Only III, IV and V
(C) Only I, II and V
(D) I, II, III, IV and V

(15) The Tenth Schedule of Indian Constitution deals with –

(A) Anti-defection law
(B) Panchayati Raj
(C) Land Reforms
(D) Distribution of Powers between Union and States

(16) Which one of the following subject is in List-III Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?

(A) Criminal Procedure
(B) Police
(C) Prisons
(D) Public Order

(17) ‘Marriage’, ‘Divorce’ and ‘Adoption’ are an entry in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution’ under the following –

(A) List I – Union List
(B) List II – State List
(C) List III – Concurrent List
(D) None of these three lists

(18) The right of the government to impose taxes and fees is provided in which List of Constitution?

(A) VI Schedule
(B) VII Schedule
(C) IX Schedule
(D) XI Schedule

(19) The provisions of the fifth and sixth schedule in the Constitution of India are made to –

(A) Protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(B) Determine the boundaries between States
(C) Determine the powers, authority and responsibility of Panchayats
(D) Protect the interests of all the border States

(20) In which form in India declared in the Preamble of Indian Constitution?

(A) A Sovereign, Democratic, Republic
(B) A Socialist, Democratic, Republic
(C) A Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
(D) None of these

(21) ‘Fundamental Rights’ are –

(A) Justifiable
(B) Non-Justifiable
(C) Flexible
(D) Rigid

(22) Consider the following statements about the Fundamental Rights in India –
I. They are a guarantee against state action
II. They are enumerated in Part III of the Constitution
III. They ensure social, economic and political justice
IV. They are unlike Bill of Rights in the U.S.A. Now,
select the correct answer from the code given below:

(A) I and II correct
(B) II and III correct
(C) I, II and III correct
(D) II, III and IV correct

(23) Fundamental Rights –

(A) Cannot be suspended
(B) Can be suspended by order of Prime Minister
(C) Can be suspended on the will of President
(D) Can be suspended during Emergency

(24) Prohibition of discrimination on the ground of religion etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under –

(A) The Right to Freedom of Religion
(B) The Right against Exploitation
(C) The Cultural and Educational Rights
(D) The Right to Equality

(25) Prohibition and abolishment of untouchability may be achieved by –
I. Making laws
II. Improving Education
III. Public Awareness
IV. Providing Jobs/Services

(A) ode:
(B) I, II and III
(C) II, III and IV
(D) I and II

(26) Assertion (A) : Untouchability is worst form of structural violence. Reason (R) : Untouchability has been practiced in the name of religious sanctions.

(A) onsider the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(27) As a part of the Right to Freedom, which one of the following does not form part of “Freedom to Assemble Peaceably and Without Arms”?

(A) Gherao officials not performing their duties.
(B) Peaceful assembly
(C) People who assemble should not bear arms
(D) State can make a law imposing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of this Right.

(28) The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish –

(A) Political Democracy
(B) Social Democracy
(C) Gandhian Democracy
(D) Social and Economic Democracy

(29) With reference to the provision contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. They shall be enforceable by Courts.
II. They shall not be enforceable by any Court.
III. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of law by the state.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only

(30) Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy –
I. These principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
II. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II

(31) Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
I. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
II. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II

(32) Given below are two statements :
Assertion (A): The Union Executive is headed by the President of India.
Reason (R): There is no limitation on the power of the President.
In the context of the above which of the following is correct?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(33) The members of board of election of the President of India are –

(A) Elected members of Lok Sabha
(B) Elected members of Rajya Sabha
(C) Elected members of Vidhan Sabha
(D) Elected members of Vidhan Parishad

(34) The Chief Minister of a State in India is not eligible to vote in the Presidential election if –

(A) He is a candidate
(B) He is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the State Legislature
(C) He is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(D) He is a member of the Lower House of the State Legislature

(35) Which of the following is not an essential qualification for the candidature of President?

(A) Completion of 35 years
(B) Educated
(C) Qualified for election as a member of the House of People
(D) Citizen of India

(36) A Member of Parliament or a State Legislature can be elected as President but –

(A) He will have to resign from his seat before contesting the election
(B) He will have to relinquish his seat within 6 months of his election
(C) He will have to relinquish his seat as he is elected
(D) An MP can contest but an MLA

(37) The President can be impeached on the grounds of violating the Constitution by?

(A) The Chief Justice of India
(B) The Vice-President of India
(C) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) The two Houses of Parliament

(38) If in India the office of President and Vice-President falls vacant at one point of time, the office of the President will temporarily be held by–

(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(C) The Chief of Armed Forces
(D) None of the above

(39) On which matter, it is not essential for the President to take advice from the Council of Ministers?

(A) Appointment of Ambassadors
(B) To assent to Bills
(C) To assent to Bills referred by Governors
(D) To dissolve Lok Sabha (e) To assent on constitutional amendment bill उत्तर: (e)

(40) Which among the following is/are appointed by the President of India?
I. Chairman of the Finance Commission
II. Vice-Chairman of the Planning Commission
III. Chief Ministers of the Union Territories
Select the correct answer by using the following code:

(A) I is correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) I and III are correct
(D) II and III are correct

(41) Who among the following is appointed by the President:

(A) Attorney General of India
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General
(C) Governor of State
(D) All of the above

(42) Which one of the following is not appointed by the President of India?

(A) Vice-President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Governor
(D) Chief Election Commissioner

(43) Indian Constitution doesn’t empower the President of India with the right of –

(A) Appointment of Prime Minister
(B) Appointment of Chief Minister in states
(C) Being the Supreme Commander of Defence Forces
(D) Executing emergency in any part of the country

(44) Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to consult the Supreme Court?

(A) Article 129
(B) Article 132
(C) Article 143
(D) Article 32

(45) Which of the following is incorrect about the powers of the President of India?

(A) The President should accept the advice of Supreme Court
(B) Emergency Power
(C) Power of extension of President’s Rule in States
(D) President can accept or reject the advice of the Supreme Court

(46) According to the Constitution, which among the following is literally not a ‘Power’ of the President of India?

(A) Promulgation of Ordinances
(B) To consult the Supreme Court
(C) To send messages to Houses of Parliament
(D) To Grant Pardon

(47) The President of India does not have the right to –

(A) Give Pardon
(B) Remove a judge of Supreme Court
(C) Declare emergency
(D) Pass ordinances

(48) Which of the following types of authority are attributed to the President of India?
I. Real and Popular
II. Titular (formal) and Dejure
III. Political and Nominal IV. Constitutional and Nominal
Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(A) I and III
(B) II and III
(C) I and IV
(D) II and IV

(49) Which one of the following is not Constitutional Prerogative of the President of India?

(A) Returning an ordinary Bill for reconsideration
(B) Returning a financial bill for reconsideration
(C) Dissolving the Lok Sabha
(D) Appointing the Prime Minister

(50) The Vice-President of India is elected by:

(A) The People
(B) The Electoral College which elects the President
(C) The members of both the Houses of Parliament
(D) The State Legislatures

(51) Who amongst the following is the head of the Indian Republic?

(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Cabinet
(D) Political head along with the Council of Ministers

(52) The President of India exercises his powers?

(A) Either directly or through officers subordinate to him
(B) Through Ministers
(C) Through Prime Minister
(D) Through Cabinet

(53) All the executive power in Indian Constitution are vested in -

(A) Prime Minister
(B) Council of Ministers
(C) President
(D) Parliament

(54) Consider the following statements.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Like the election of the President, the election of Vice President is indirect The members of the State Legislatures play an important role in the election of both

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2 both
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

(55) Who is the Chairman of Rajya Sabha?

(A) The President
(B) The Vice-President
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Speaker of Lok Sabha

(56) The Vice-President may be removed from his office by a resolution of?

(A) Council of States
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Cabinet
(D) Council of Ministers

(57) Who has the constitutional power to declare a geographical area as a “Scheduled Area”?

(A) Governor
(B) Chief Minister
(C) Prime Minister
(D) President

(58) Which among the following is/are appointed by the President of India?
I. Chairman of the Finance Commission
II. Vice-Ministers of the Union Territories
III. Chief-Ministers of the Union Territories

(A) 1 is correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) I and III is correct
(D) II and III are correct

(59) Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President to send back any matter for reconsideration by the council of Ministers?

(A) 39th
(B) 40th
(C) 42nd
(D) 44th

(60) Under which article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his assent to the Ordinance on electoral reforms when it was back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002)?

(A) Article 121
(B) Article 142
(C) Article 123
(D) Article 124

(61) In the Presidential election in India, every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the state by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly.
As at present (1997), the expression “Population” here means the population as ascertained by the –

(A) 1991 Census
(B) 1981 Census
(C) 1971 Census
(D) 1961 Census

(62) If there is any dispute regarding presidential election, it can be referred to –

(A) Attorney General of India
(B) Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) None of these

(63) Which one of the following is a part of the electoral college of the president but not of the process of impeachment?

(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) State Legislative Councils
(D) State Legislative Assemblies

(64) In Indian Polity, the executive is subordinate to the?

(A) Judiciary
(B) Legislature
(C) Election Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission

(65) The number of Lok Sabha members required to table a ‘No Confidence Motion’ against the council of ministers is?

(A) 30
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 60

(66) ‘Cabinet’ means?

(A) All ministers in the government
(B) Cabinet ministers and their secretaries
(C) Ministers with cabinet Rank
(D) Ministers of state

(67) If the Prime Minister of India belongs to the Upper House of Parliament:

(A) He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
(B) He will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House
(C) He can make statements only in the Upper House
(D) He will have to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in as the Prime Minister

(68) Which one of the following motions, the council of ministers in India can move?

(A) No-Confidence Motion
(B) Censure Motion
(C) Adjournment Motion
(D) Confidence Motion

(69) Which of the following official documents is related with India?

(A) Green Paper
(B) White Paper
(C) Yellow Paper
(D) Blue Book

(70) The Reorganization of Union Cabinet is based on the Report of?

(A) Gopalaswami Ayyangar
(B) K. M. Munshi
(C) T. T. Krishnamachari
(D) B. C. Roy

(71) Who is the highest Civil Services Officer of the Central Government?

(A) The Attorney General of India
(B) The Cabinet Secretary
(C) The Home Secretary
(D) The Finance Secretary

(72) For the election of Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filled by –

(A) Anyone residing in India
(B) A resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested
(C) Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency
(D) Any citizen of India

(73) The state wise seat allocation in Lok Sabha is based on?

(A) Population
(B) Area
(C) Poverty
(D) Language

(74) Which of the following constitutional Amendments is related to raising the number of members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the states?

(A) 6th and 22nd
(B) 12th and 38th
(C) 7th and 31st
(D) 11th and 42nd

(75) The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the direct supervision of?

(A) Ministry of Home Affairs
(B) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(C) President of India
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(76) The members of council of states are elected by –

(A) Members of Legislative Assembly of States
(B) Members of Legislative Council of States
(C) Members of both Legislative Council and Assembly
(D) Members of Municipalities and Gram Panchayat

(77) Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in?

(A) The matter of creating new All India Services
(B) Amending the Constitution
(C) The removal of the government
(D) Making cut motion

(78) Minimum how many times the Parliament has to meet in a year?

(A) Once
(B) Twice
(C) Thrice
(D) Four Times

(79) Which of the following provisions deals with the privileges and immunities of the members of Parliament under the Constitution of India?

(A) Article 104
(B) Article 105
(C) Article 82
(D) Article 117

(80) Parliament may legislate on any subject of state list when –

(A) There is assent of President
(B) General permission of State Legislative Assembly has been received
(C) In any situation
(D) Resolution thereof has been passed by Rajya Sabha

(81) All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the –

(A) Contingency Fund of India
(B) Public Account
(C) Consolidated fund of India
(D) Deposits and Advances Fund

(82) If the Annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha –

(A) The Budget is modified and presented again
(B) The Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
(C) The Union Finance Minister is asked to resign
(D) The Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers

(83) The provision for the calling Attention Notices has restricted the scope of which of the following?

(A) Short duration discussion
(B) Question Hour
(C) Adjournment Motion
(D) Zero Hour

(84) Consider the following statements:
I. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
II. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises members of Lok Sabha, Members of Rajya Sabha and a few eminent persons of industry and trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 Only
(B) 2 Only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

(85) Estimates committee is constituted from the members of?

(A) Both the Houses
(B) The Rajya Sabha
(C) The Lok Sabha
(D) None of these

(86) Ad hoc Judges are appointed in the Supreme Court when –

(A) Some Judges go on long leave
(B) No one is available for permanent appointment
(C) There is an abnormal increase in cases pending before the court
(D) There is no quorum of the Judges available to hold

(87) The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the centre and the state falls under is –

(A) Advisory Jurisdiction
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction
(D) Writs Jurisdiction

(88) In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India enunciated the ‘Doctrine of Basic Structure’?

(A) Golaknath
(B) A. K. Gopalan
(C) Keshvanand Bharti
(D) Menka Gandhi

(89) Under which of the following Article of Indian Constitution the Governor may reserve a Bill for the consideration of the President?

(A) Article 169
(B) Article 200
(C) Article 201
(D) Article 202

(90) Who among the following is not appointed by the State’s Governor?

(A) Chief Minister
(B) Members, State Public Service Commission
(C) Judges of High Court
(D) Advocate General

(91) Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

(A) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(B) Rajmannar Committee (1969)
(C) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(D) National Commission to Review the working of the constitution (2000)

(92) The Governor of a State can promulgate ordinance during recess of Legislature under which of the following Articles of the Constitution?

(A) Article 123
(B) Article 213
(C) Article 220
(D) Article 219

(93) Which is the Upper Chamber of State Legislatures in India?

(A) Legislative Council
(B) Legislative Assembly
(C) Governor’s Office
(D) None of these

(94) Which one of the following is the period for the Legislative Council to detain the ordinary bills?

(A) 3 Months
(B) 4 Months
(C) 6 Months
(D) 14 Months

(95) Which Article of the Constitution defines the duties of the Chief Minister?

(A) Article 162
(B) Article 164
(C) Article 165
(D) Article 167

(96) Who conducts the State Assembly Election?

(A) Chief Justice of High Court
(B) State Election Commission
(C) Election Commission of India
(D) Governor of the State

(97) Pay and allowances of the Ministers of a State Government are determined by the –

(A) Chief Minister
(B) Governor
(C) Chief Secretary
(D) State Legislative Assembly

(98) Which is the only state in India to have the Common Civil Code?

(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Mizoram
(C) Nagaland
(D) Goa

(99) Consider the following statements –
I. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that state.
II. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

(100) What is the source of Inter-State Councils?

(A) Constitution
(B) Parliamentary Laws
(C) Recommendation of Planning Commission
(D) Approved Resolution by CM

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