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Test Name :
Test -1 GS + Polity 23-November-2025
Full Marks:
200
Time Duration:
120 minutes
Time Remaining:
00m 00s
Total Questions:
100
(1) Consider the following statements about the Parliamentary System:
1. In a parliamentary system, the President/King is only a nominal head, while the Prime Minister is the real executive head.
2. It is based on the principle of separation of powers between the Executive and the Legislature.
3. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the lower house of the legislature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(2) The main features of the Presidential System include:
1. Direct election of the President.
2. The President is not accountable to the Legislature.
3. Fixed tenure.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(3) Essential features of a Federal System are:
1. Written Constitution
2. Bicameral Legislature
3. Supremacy of the Constitution
4. Independent Judiciary
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(4) The meaning of a Constitutional Government is:
(A) A government that makes laws according to constitutional requirements.
(B) Provision of fundamental rights for citizens.
(C) A government whose powers are controlled by the limits imposed by the Constitution.
(D) Governments whose structure and functions are determined by the President.
(5) In which category can India’s political system be placed?
(A) Parliamentary, Unitary
(B) Presidential, Federal
(C) Parliamentary, Quasi-federal
(D) Presidential, Unitary
(6) Consider the following statements regarding the making of the Indian Constitution:
1. The Constituent Assembly was formed under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946.
2. All provinces were given representation in the Constituent Assembly in proportion to their population.
3. After independence, the participation of representatives of Indian princely states in the Constituent Assembly ended.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(7) Provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935 included:
1. Introduction of Dyarchy at both the Centre and the
Provinces.
2. Introduction of Provincial Autonomy.
3. Provision for the establishment of a Federal Court.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(8) Which of the following is not included in the ideal of ‘Justice’ in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
(A) Social Justice
(B) Economic Justice
(C) Political Justice
(D) Moral Justice
(9) Consider the following statements regarding Indian Citizenship:
1. India has a provision for dual citizenship.
2. A person cannot be a citizen of India by birth if either
of his parents is an illegal migrant.
3. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, termination of
citizenship is allowed only in cases of treason.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(10) Unitary features of the Indian Constitution include:
1. Single Constitution
2. Emergency Provisions
3. All India Services
4. Appointment of the Governor
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(11) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the creation of a new state within the Indian Union?
(A) Parliament cannot create a new state by a simple majority; it requires a special majority.
(B) Prior recommendation of the President is mandatory before introducing such a bill.
(C) Before implementing such a bill in Union Territories, approval of the concerned State Legislature is required.
(D) The President must accept the views of the concerned State Legislature.
(12) The Indian Constitution is called a “Bag of Borrowings”. Yet, why is it considered a unique document? I) Provisions borrowed from external sources have been modified and adapted according to Indian needs. II) It was created by only one amendment procedure. III) It is the most detailed constitution in the world. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(13) The ‘Objective Resolution’ adopted by India’s Constituent Assembly became the guiding philosophy for which of the following?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
(C) Preamble
(D) Emergency Provisions
(14) Under Part I of the Constitution (Union and its Territory), which Article describes the law required for altering the names, boundaries, or areas of states?
(A) Article 1
(B) Article 2
(C) Article 3
(D) Article 4
(15) Which Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees that no person shall be deprived of his life and personal liberty except according to procedure established by law?
(A) Article 19
(B) Article 20
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 22
(16) Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
I) DPSP help in making India a welfare state.
II) The 44th Constitutional Amendment added “to secure opportunities for healthy development of children.”
III) These rights are non-justiciable but “fundamental in the governance of the country.”
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(17) Which Article of the Indian Constitution relates to the abolition of untouchability?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 16
(C) Article 17
(D) Article 18
(18) Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties:
I) They were added on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.
II) They apply only to citizens.
III) They are not justiciable in nature.
IV) They are placed in Part V of the Constitution.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only three
(D) none
(19) Which of the following Fundamental Rights is available only to Indian citizens and not to foreigners?
(A) Equality before law (Article 14)
(B) Freedom of religion (Article 25)
(C) Freedom of speech and expression (Article 19)
(D) Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21)
(20) According to constitutional provisions, which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?
(A) Safeguarding public property
(B) Developing scientific temper and spirit of reform
(C) Voting in elections
(D) Abiding by the Constitution and respecting its ideals
(21) What is the main difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)?
(A) Fundamental Rights are negative, whereas DPSPs are positive.
(B) DPSPs require legislation for implementation, whereas Fundamental Rights are self - enforceable .
(C) Fundamental Rights are justiciable, whereas DPSPs are non-justiciable.
(D) All of the above.
(22) Which of the following DPSPs was NOT added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976?
(A) Providing free legal aid to the poor (Article 39A).
(B) Protecting and improving the environment (Article 48A).
(C) Ensuring workers’ participation in the management of industries (Article 43A).
(D) The State shall strive to reduce inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities (Article 38).
(23) Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for constitutional amendment (Article 368):
I). A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be initiated by State Legislatures.
II). In case of a deadlock between both Houses of Parliament on an amendment bill, there is a provision for a joint sitting.
III). Amendments related to the federal structure of the Constitution require ratification by a simple majority of half of the States. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) I) and II) only
(B) III) only
(C) II) and III) only
(D) I), II) and III)
(24) Which of the following constitutional provisions can be amended by Parliament by a simple majority?
I). Fixing the quorum in Parliament.
II). Laws related to acquisition and termination of citizenship.
III). Creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in states.
IV). Distribution of legislative powers between Centre and States. Select the correct answer using the code below:
(A) I) and II) only
(B) II) and III) only
(C) I), II) and III) only
(D) I), II), III) and IV)
(25) 25 . Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the ‘Basic Structure Doctrine’ of the Constitution?
(A) It was propounded in the Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) case.
(B) It limits the amending power of Parliament.
(C) It ensures that the basic ideals of the Constitution cannot be amended.
(D) Secularism is not included under this doctrine.
(26) Which of the following changes were made by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976?
I). The President was made bound to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
II). The tenure of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies was increased from 5 years to 6 years.
III). The words “Socialist,” “Secular,” and “Integrity” were added to the Preamble.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) I) only
(B) I) and II) only
(C) II) and III) only
(D) I), II) and III)
(27) Which Constitutional Amendment Act authorized the President to proclaim a National Emergency only upon receiving a written recommendation from the Cabinet?
(A) 38th Amendment Act
(B) 42nd Amendment Act
(C) 44th Amendment Act
(D) 52nd Amendment Act
(28) What is the position of Judicial Review in relation to the ‘Basic Structure’ of the Constitution?
(A) Judicial Review is not part of the Basic Structure; hence, it can be amended.
(B) Judicial Review is itself part of the Basic Structure; hence, it cannot be amended.
(C) Only the Supreme Court’s power of judicial review is part of the Basic Structure.
(D) Only cases related to judicial activism come under the Basic Structure.
(29) What is meant by ‘Special Majority’ in Parliament?
(A) More than 50% of the total membership of the House.
(B) More than 50% of the total membership of the House and a two-thirds majority of members present and voting.
(C) Two-thirds majority of members present and voting.
(D) Two-thirds of the total membership of the House.
(30) Which Article of the Indian Constitution states that the power to amend the Constitution lies with Parliament?
(A) Article 365
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 372
(31) Consider the following statements regarding the proclamation of National Emergency:
I). A National Emergency can be declared only on the grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
II). It must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within 30 days from the date of proclamation.
III). Once approved by Parliament, it remains in operation for a period of six months. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Only I)
(B) Only I) and III)
(C) Only II) and III)
(D) I), II) and III)
(32) With reference to the failure of constitutional machinery in a state (President’s Rule), consider the following statements:
I). It can be proclaimed by the President only on the basis of the Governor’s report.
II). After approval by both Houses of Parliament, it normally remains in force for six months at a time.
III). It can be extended for a maximum period of three years.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Only I) and II)
(B) Only II) and III)
(C) Only II)
(D) I), II) and III) )
(33) Which of the following statements is correct regarding Financial Emergency?
(A) It must be approved by Parliament within 30 days from the date of proclamation by a simple majority.
(B) Once approved, it continues indefinitely until it is revoked.
(C) During this period, the President does not have the power to reduce the salaries and allowances of employees of the Union or the States.
(D) ) Its purpose is to intervene when the financial stability of India or any part of its territory is threatened.
(34) Consider the following statements regarding the effects of a National Emergency on Fundamental Rights:
I). Article 358 automatically suspends the six Fundamental Rights under Article 19 as soon as the Emergency is declared.
II). Article 359 empowers the President to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
III). Under no circumstances can the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Articles 20 and 21 be suspended.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Only I) and II)
(B) Only II) and III)
(C) Only I) and III)
(D) I), II) and III)
(35) Who has the power to revoke a proclamation of National Emergency?
(A) Both Houses of Parliament by special majority
(B) The President at any time by issuing a subsequent proclamation
(C) Lok Sabha by simple majority
(D) Only the Supreme Court
(36) Under Article 356 (President’s Rule), which of the following actions can be taken when there is failure of constitutional machinery in a state? I). The President may assume all or any of the functions of the Governor. II). The powers of the State Legislature may be exercised by Parliament or under its authority. III). The powers of the High Court may be taken over by the President. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Only I) and II)
(B) Only II) and III)
(C) Only I) and III)
(D) I), II) and III)
(37) Which of the following may be the consequences of a Financial Emergency?
(A) Suspension of the powers of State Legislatures
(B) Transfer of taxes from the States to the Union for its own purposes
(C) Reserving Money Bills for the consideration of the President
(D) Reduction of salaries only of Cent ral Government employees )
(38) Once approved by Parliament, President’s Rule (Article 356) cannot be extended beyond one year unless which of the following conditions is satisfied?
(A) National Emergency is i
(B) The Supreme Court has recommended it
(C) The Election Commission of India (ECI) certifies that elections cannot be held
(D) n operation in the State )
(39) Consider the following statements regarding the President of India: I). A proposal to impeach the President can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. II). The impeachment of the President is a quasi-judicial process. III). The elected members of State Legislative Assemblies do not take part in the impeachment process. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Only I) and II)
(B) Only II) and III)
(C) Only I) and I II)
(D) I), II) and III)
(40) Consider the following statements regarding the Vice President of India: I). The Vice President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament. II). A resolution to remove the Vice President can be initiated only in the Rajya Sabha. III). In case of a vacancy in the office of the Vice President, it is not mandatory to conduct elections at the earliest. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Only I) and II)
(B) Only II) and III)
(C) Only I) and I II)
(D) I), II) and III)
(41) Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of the Prime Minister: I). The President appoints as Prime Minister only the leader of the party having majority in the Lok Sabha. II). The Constitution does not specify any special qualifications for the office of the Prime Minister. III). Before becoming Prime Minister, a person must necessarily be a member of either House of Parliament. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Only I)
(B) Only II)
(C) Only I) and I II)
(D) I), II) and III)
(42) Consider the following statements regarding the Delimitation Commission: I). The Delimitation Commission is a constitutional body whose orders cannot be challenged in any court. II). The delimitation orders are laid before the Lok Sabha and the State Legislatures, but no changes can be made in them. III). India has so far constituted four Delimitation Commissions. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Only I)
(B) Only I) and II)
(C) Only II) and III)
(D) I), II) and III)
(43) Consider the following statements regarding the Delimitation Commission:
I). The Delimitation Commission is a constitutional body whose orders cannot be challenged in any court.
II). The delimitation orders are laid before the Lok Sabha and the State Legislatures, but no changes can be made in them.
III). India has so far constituted four Delimitation Commissions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Only I)
(B) Only I) and II)
(C) Only II) and III)
(D) I), II) and III)
(44) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Veto Power of the President of India?
(A) The Constitution explicitly mentions the ‘Pocket Veto’.
(B) The President cannot return any ordinary bill for reconsideration.
(C) The President cannot use veto power on a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
(D) The President has only ‘Suspensive Veto’ and ‘Pocket Veto’.
(45) Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Privileges: I). These privileges are available to Members of Parliament as well as to the President. II). These privileges do not apply when members are attending a session of Parliament. III). These privileges allow Parliament to make rules and procedures that it considers best for its functioning. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Only I)
(B) Only III)
(C) Only I) and II)
(D) I), II) and III)
(46) Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the Attorney General of India?
(A) He has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament.
(B) He has the right to vote in Parliamentary committees.
(C) His remuneration is not fixed by the Constitution.
(D) He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
(47) Consider the following statements regarding the legislative powers of the Governor: I). The Governor may summon and prorogue the sessions of the State Legislature, but cannot dissolve the Legislative Assembly. II). The Governor may reserve a bill for consideration of the President, especially if it endangers the powers of the High Court. III). An ordinance issued by the Governor during the recess of the State Legislature must be approved by the Legislature within six weeks. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Only I) and II)
(B) Only II) and III)
(C) Only I) and III)
(D) Only II)
(48) Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the Chief Minister?
(A) The Chief Minister announces government policy on the floor of the Legislative Assembly.
(B) He is required to provide information to the Governor regarding the administration of the State.
(C) He acts as the Chairperson of the State Planning Board.
(D) If a minister disagrees with the Chief Minister, the Chief Minister cannot advise the Governor to remove that minister.
(49) Which of the following principle(s) relating to the State Council of Ministers is/are NOT related to the federal system? I). Collective Responsibility II). Members of both Houses of the State Legislature can become ministers. III). The size of the Council of Ministers is determined by the Governor. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Only I)
(B) Only III)
(C) Only I) and III)
(D) I), II) and III)
(50) Who decides on the disqualification of a member of the State Legislature?
(A) The Governor, on the advice of the Chief Minister
(B) The Governor, on the advice of the State Election Commission (SEC)
(C) The Speaker/Chairman of the State Legislature
(D) The High Court, through a writ petition
(51) With reference to a Money Bill in a State, consider the following statements: I). It can be introduced only in the Legislative Assembly and that too on the prior recommendation of the Governor. II). The Legislative Council has the power to withhold a Money Bill for a maximum of 14 days. III). The Governor cannot withhold assent to it. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) I) and II) only
(B) II) and III) only
(C) I) and III) o nly
(D) I), II) and III)
(52) Which of the following powers is specifically reserved for the Governor and does NOT require the advice of the Chief Minister?
(A) Asking the Chief Minister to prove majority on the floor of the Legislative Assembly.
(B) Reserving a Bill for the consideration of the President.
(C) Removing the Chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission.
(D) Appointment of the Advocate General of the State.
(53) With reference to the State Legislative Council, consider the following statements: I). The Constitution specifies the maximum and minimum number of members of the Council. II). One-third of the members of the Council are elected by Local Bodies. III). One-third of the members of the Council are elected by teachers and graduates. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) I) and II) only
(B) II) only
(C) I) and III) only
(D) I), II) and III)
(54) What is the validity of an Ordinance issued by the Governor in India?
(A) It must be approved by the Legislature within six months.
(B) It is valid only for six weeks, after which it lapses.
(C) It remains valid for six weeks after the Legislature reassembles.
(D) Unlike Presidential Ordi nances, it never lapses.
(55) With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, consider the following statements: I). The CAG audits expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India but not that of State Governments. II). The CAG holds office during the pleasure of the President. III). The CAG is an agent of Parliament and is accountable only to Parliament. Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?
(A) I) and II) only
(B) II) and III) only
(C) I) and III) only
(D) I), II) and III)
(56) With reference to the Finance Commission of India, consider the following statements: I). It is a constitutional body constituted every five years by the President. II). It makes recommendations regarding the distribution of net tax proceeds between the Centre and the States. III). Its recommendations are binding on State Governments in the interest of federal structure. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) I) only
(B) I) and II) only
(C) II) and III) only
(D) I), II) and III)
(57) With reference to the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), consider the following statements: I). It is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. II). The Chairperson of the Commission must be a retired Chief Justice of India. III). The NHRC does not have the power to investigate human rights violations involving armed forces. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) I) only
(B) I) and II) only
(C) II) and III) only
(D) I), II) and III)
(58) The Chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) can be removed by:
(A) The President, based on a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament.
(B) The President, after an inquiry by the Supreme Court.
(C) Only the President, without any judicial inquiry.
(D) The Prime Minister, on the recommendati on of the Union Cabinet.
(59) The provisions ensuring the autonomy of the Election Commission of India are: I). Security of tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC). II). Removal procedure of the CEC is the same as that of a Judge of the Supreme Court. III). Conditions of service cannot be altered after appointment. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) I) only
(B) I) and II) only
(C) II) and III) only
(D) I), II) and III)
(60) With reference to the National Commission for Women (NCW), consider the following statements: I). It is a constitutional body that reviews constitutional and legal safeguards for women. II). It has the powers of a civil court. III). The members of the Commission are appointed by the President. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) I) and II) only
(B) II) only
(C) II) and III) o nly
(D) I), II) and III) )
(61) Under which category does the Food Corporation of India (FCI) fall?
(A) Constitutional Body
(B) Statutory Body
(C) Executive Body
(D) Quasi-Judicial Body
(62) Assertion (A): The Anti-Defection Law in India was implemented through an ordinary Act of Parliament. Reason (R): The Anti-Defection Law was added to the Constitution through an amendment inserting the Tenth Schedule. Choose the correct answer:
(A) A and R are both true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) A and R are both true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
(63) With reference to Indian federalism, consider the following statements: I). India has dual citizenship, which supports the federal principle. II). The Centre–State legislative relations are tilted in favour of the Centre, due to which Indian federalism is called “quasi-federal.” III). In financial matters, the States have revenue sources equal to that of the Centre. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) I) only
(B) II) only
(C) I) and III) only
(D) I), II) and III)
(64) Under which circumstances can Parliament make laws on subjects included in the State List? I). When the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution that it is in the national interest. II). When two or more States agree. III). During a national emergency. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) I) only
(B) I) and II) only
(C) II) and III) only
(D) I), II) and III)
(65) Which of the following provisions is available only under Article 352 (National Emergency) and not under Article 356 (President’s Rule)?
(A) Central control over the executive functions of the State.
(B) Power of Parliament to legislate on State List subjects.
(C) Grants-in-aid provided by the Centre to a State.
(D) Suspension or dissolution o f the State Legislature.
(66) With reference to Centre–State Administrative Relations, consider the following statements: I). The Centre has the power to give directions to any State regarding the construction and maintenance of means of communication. II). It is mandatory for State governments to comply with the directions issued by the Centre. III). The office of the Governor reflects the control of the Centre over the executive functions of the State. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) I) only
(B) I) and II) only
(C) II) and III) only
(D) I), II) and III)
(67) Which body can be established by the Central Government to resolve an inter-state dispute?
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Zonal Councils
(C) Inter-State Council
(D) River Valley Authority
(68) With reference to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, which of the following subjects is included in the Concurrent List?
(A) Railways
(B) Agriculture
(C) Education
(D) Public Order
(69) What was the main objective of the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission?
(A) Strengthening Panchayati Raj Institutions in the States.
(B) Reviewing Centre–State relations and establishing a balance.
(C) Reviewing the reorganisation of States on a linguistic basis.
(D) Laying down a code of conduct for government employees.
(70) With reference to Centre–State financial relations, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The Central Government can assign certain sources of revenue to State Governments.
(B) Taxes levied by the Centre are mandatorily shared between the Centre and the States.
(C) The State Legislature has the power to levy taxes on any subject in the Union List.
(D) The recommendations of the Finance Commission are binding on the Central Government.
(71) Assertion (A): Under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, political parties are not allowed to participate in elections to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).
Reason (R): Panchayati Raj Institutions are created to function on a non-party basis to strengthen democracy at the grassroots level.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
(72) With reference to the provisions of the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, consider the following statements:
1. The Act makes it mandatory to establish a State Election Commission and State Finance Commission for Municipalities.
2. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and women in Municipalities is mandatory.
3. The State Legislature is empowered to enact laws regarding the constitution of District Planning Committees (DPCs).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(73) Who provides financial resources to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs)?
1. Grants based on the recommendations of the Central Finance Commission.
2. Share of revenue based on the recommendations of the State Finance Commission.
3. Funds under Centrally Sponsored Schemes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(74) Assertion (A): The main reason for granting constitutional status to Panchayati Raj was that, without constitutional backing, regular elections to these bodies could not be ensured.
Reason (R): Under the 73rd Amendment, no Panchayat can be dissolved before the expiry of its 5-year term.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
(75) Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the District Planning Committee (DPC) in India?
(A) It is constituted according to the law enacted by the State Legislature.
(B) The main function of DPC is to consolidate plans prepared by Panchayats and Municipalities in the district.
(C) Two-thirds of its members are elected members of rural and urban local bodies.
(D) There is no provision for the formation of a DPC in the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
(76) With reference to the Panchayat (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA), consider the following statements:
1. The Act grants special powers to the Gram Sabha in tribal areas.
2. It protects the traditional rights of tribal communities.
3. It automatically nullifies State Legislature laws in Scheduled Areas.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(77) What is the primary function of the State Election Commission (SEC)?
(A) Conducting Legislative Assembly, Panchayat, and Municipal elections.
(B) Preparing electoral rolls and conducting Panchayat and Municipal elections only.
(C) Supervising, directing, and controlling Legislative Assembly elections.
(D) Taking final decisions on all election-related matters in the State.
(78) Who is known as the “Father of Local Self-Government” in India?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Lord Ripon
(C) B. R. Ambedkar
(D) Lord Mayo
(79) With reference to the removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court, consider the following statements:
1. A motion for removal can be introduced only on the grounds of ‘proved misbehaviour’ or ‘incapacity’.
2. If the motion is introduced in the Lok Sabha, it must be supported by 100 members.
3. The motion must be passed by both Houses by a majority of the total membership of the House and by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(80) Assertion (A): The High Court has the power of superintendence over subordinate courts.
Reason (R): The High Court can review the decisions of subordinate courts only under its appellate jurisdiction.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
(81) What is the implication of the Supreme Court being a ‘Court of Record’?
1. The decisions and proceedings of the Supreme Court are recorded as evidence and have perpetual memory.
2. It has the power to punish for its contempt.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(82) The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India includes:
(A) All disputes relating to the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
(B) Disputes between the Centre and one or more States.
(C) Hearing appeals from High Courts.
(D) Reference on questions of law made by the President.
(83) Assertion (A): The judiciary in India is considered the guardian of the Constitution.
Reason (R): The power of judicial review allows the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of laws passed by the legislature and the executive.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) A and R are both true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) A and R are both true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
(84) Who has the power to transfer a Judge from one High Court to another High Court?
(A) Chief Justice of India (CJI)
(B) President of India, after consultation with the CJI
(C) Governor, on the advice of the Chief Minister
(D) Parliament, by simple majority
(85) With reference to Subordinate Courts, the term ‘District Judge’ includes:
1. Judges of City Civil Courts
2. Chief Presidency Magistrates
3. Chief Judicial Magistrates
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(86) Which writ literally means ‘We Command’ and is issued when a public officer fails to perform his statutory duty?
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Mandamus
(C) Certiorari
(D) Quo Warranto
(87) With reference to the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST), consider the following statements:
1. The two commissions were separated by the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act.
2. Both commissions have the powers of a civil court.
3. Both commissions submit their annual reports to the President.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(88) Assertion (A): The Attorney General of India has the right to participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament, but does not have the right to vote. Reason (R): The Attorney General is a constitutional post, but is not a member of either House of Parliament.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) A and R are both true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) A and R are both true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
(89) Which of the following bodies is not explicitly described as a ‘constitutional body’ in the Constitution of India, yet has been established by the Central Government?
(A) Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
(B) NITI Aayog
(C) National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)
(D) Finance Commission
(90) Assertion (A): The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India is removed from office through the same procedure as that of a judge of the Supreme Court. Reason (R): The other Election Commissioners (ECs) can be removed only by a special majority of Parliament.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) A and R are both true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) A and R are both true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
(91) Which of the following bodies can be considered a Statutory Body?
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) National Commission for Minorities (NCM)
(C) National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)
(D) GST Council
(92) With reference to the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC), consider the following statements:
1. CVC is a constitutional body established under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
2. It has the power of superintendence over any investigative agency under the government.
3. CVC submits its reports only to the President.
Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(93) What type of body is the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)?
(A) Constitutional Body
(B) Statutory Body
(C) Executive Body
(D) Advisory Body
(94) Which constitutional body audits the revenue received and expenditure made by the Central and State Governments in India?
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
(C) National Development Council (NDC)
(D) Inter-State Council
(95) Assertion (A): The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India does not hold office during the pleasure of the President, which ensures his security of tenure. Reason (R): Other Election Commissioners (ECs) can be removed only through an impeachment process by a special majority of both Houses of Parliament.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) A and R are both true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) A and R are both true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
(96) With reference to the Election Commission of India (ECI), consider the following statements:
1. ECI has the power to conduct elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, the President, and the Vice-President.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner and the two other Election Commissioners have equal powers, but their salaries are different.
3. Regional Commissioners of the Election Commission are appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Election Commissioner.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(97) Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which of the following is/are included as grounds for disqualification of an MP or MLA?
1. Having a share or interest in government contracts.
2. Imprisonment for two years or more.
3. Failure to submit a correct account of election expenses on time.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(98) Assertion (A): The Constitution of India contains no direct provision for the registration of political parties.
Reason (R): The registration of political parties is carried out by the Election Commission under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) A and R are both true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) A and R are both true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
(99) With reference to the ‘NOTA’ (None of the Above) option, consider the following statements:
1. If NOTA receives the highest number of votes, the election in that constituency is cancelled.
2. NOTA was introduced by amending the Representation of the People Act.
3. The Supreme Court ordered the introduction of NOTA in the case People’s Union for Civil Liberties vs. Union of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(100) Which of the following committee/commission on electoral reforms recommended granting additional powers to the State Election Commissions?
(A) Tarkunde Committee
(B) Dinesh Goswami Committee
(C) Second Administrative Reforms Commission (Second ARC)
(D) Indrajit Gupta Committee
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